They have done similar studies around the world. From my research the biggest indicator is a wealth gap. While this alone does not confirm fascism what does is an ever increasing wealth gap where an extreme minority of the population owns the majority of wealth.
Wealth inequality is a consequence of the existence of markets, and long predates “fascism.” I guess you are using that term in some kind of hyperbolic sense, but I don’t think these type of word games are very constructive.
As it happens, inequality has been moderately successfully addressed since the advent of progressive taxation and welfare states, and some of the democracies we are talking about are among the most egalitarian societies in human history, certainly when it comes to post-neolithic times.
Even aside from oligarchs behind the scenes, it is no surprise that voters’ interests and desires do not align very well with policy in the US, where a two-party system with legalized bribery is in place, and voting rights are unequally weighed and conditional. These factors are either not at all or to a much lesser extent relevant in top-tier democracies.
Thank you for responding, but please provide evidence of a country without an ever widening wealth gap or go home.
I get you don’t understand fascism. It is okay. As Mussolini put it is corporatism. The evolution of corporatism is a corportocracy. Corporations are the dominant form of all social constructs currently regardless of governments or cultures.
I also understand you are under the illusion that any country that exists provides the rights that human beings deserve. There is no country that exists that deserves humanity.
There are many examples of economies where wealth inequality is not “ever widening.” Even in very recent US history there have been times of decreasing inequality, such as in the wake of the Great Recession.
Sustained decreasing trends have been observed in many Western economies in the period from the late 19th Century to the 1980s, when many of these economies introduced redistributive measures.
Corporations are the dominant form of all social constructs currently regardless of governments or cultures.
Markets and inequality also long predate corporations, which emerged in the early modern period.
So then you can provide no example. As I have researched, there is no nation currently that has the trend of reducing the wealth gap. I understand you do not view this as proof and that is okay.
I brought up the fact that corporations are currently the dominant social construct in our society regardless of country. You can agree or disagree.
Here is one example of an economy where wealth inequality (quantified using the Gini coefficient) decreased somewhat in the period 2011-2022.
I brought up the fact that corporations are currently the dominant social construct in our society regardless of country. You can agree or disagree.
It’s hard to agree or disagree, as it’s not clear what you mean by “dominant social construct.” Compared to what?
What I do certainly disagree with, is that inequality is necessarily related to either corporations or fascism, since both concepts are much newer than inequality.
As far as explaining what the dominant form of culture means here is an article based off the movie corporation. Obviously this is a US perspective, but all my research indicates that corporations are dominating all of Europe as well.
I never said fascism is the only cause of inequality. It is the evolution of corporatism which I believe has evolved into a corportocracy. The revolving door between private and public and regulatory capture have created the reality that corporations are the ones crafting and getting the majority of all policy passed around the world. While in the US is extreme at almost 90% of all policy, in Europe it is slight better with 70-80% of all policy.
There are different measures of wealth inequality, and they are going to give different results.
For income inequality the typical approach is to consider the distribution of income post-transfers by Gini coefficient. In this sense the Dutch economy has among the lowest inequalities in the world (Gini ~0.26-0.29 depending on the estimate and methodology), though still a bit worse than the most equal societies (Gini ~0.23-0.25). (By comparison, the US is around 0.40-0.42.)
wealth inequality is high
Compared to what? What it should be? Other countries? Other times? For much of history, most people weren’t even allowed to own property aside from their personal belongings. Do I, personally, think inequality should be reduced? Yes. But let’s not deny that these societies are among the most egalitarian in history, “corporatism” or not, and the feudal and ancient civilizations were all invariably much worse.
That’s a US-only study.
They have done similar studies around the world. From my research the biggest indicator is a wealth gap. While this alone does not confirm fascism what does is an ever increasing wealth gap where an extreme minority of the population owns the majority of wealth.
Wealth inequality is a consequence of the existence of markets, and long predates “fascism.” I guess you are using that term in some kind of hyperbolic sense, but I don’t think these type of word games are very constructive.
As it happens, inequality has been moderately successfully addressed since the advent of progressive taxation and welfare states, and some of the democracies we are talking about are among the most egalitarian societies in human history, certainly when it comes to post-neolithic times.
Even aside from oligarchs behind the scenes, it is no surprise that voters’ interests and desires do not align very well with policy in the US, where a two-party system with legalized bribery is in place, and voting rights are unequally weighed and conditional. These factors are either not at all or to a much lesser extent relevant in top-tier democracies.
Thank you for responding, but please provide evidence of a country without an ever widening wealth gap or go home.
I get you don’t understand fascism. It is okay. As Mussolini put it is corporatism. The evolution of corporatism is a corportocracy. Corporations are the dominant form of all social constructs currently regardless of governments or cultures.
I also understand you are under the illusion that any country that exists provides the rights that human beings deserve. There is no country that exists that deserves humanity.
There are many examples of economies where wealth inequality is not “ever widening.” Even in very recent US history there have been times of decreasing inequality, such as in the wake of the Great Recession.
Sustained decreasing trends have been observed in many Western economies in the period from the late 19th Century to the 1980s, when many of these economies introduced redistributive measures.
Markets and inequality also long predate corporations, which emerged in the early modern period.
So then you can provide no example. As I have researched, there is no nation currently that has the trend of reducing the wealth gap. I understand you do not view this as proof and that is okay.
I brought up the fact that corporations are currently the dominant social construct in our society regardless of country. You can agree or disagree.
Here is one example of an economy where wealth inequality (quantified using the Gini coefficient) decreased somewhat in the period 2011-2022.
It’s hard to agree or disagree, as it’s not clear what you mean by “dominant social construct.” Compared to what?
What I do certainly disagree with, is that inequality is necessarily related to either corporations or fascism, since both concepts are much newer than inequality.
https://nltimes.nl/2026/05/06/rich-get-richer-dutch-tax-system-widens-income-disparities
"Between 2011 and 2019, the wealthiest 0.01 percent of households’ income increased by over 70 percent, "
You got me excited for a second, but I have already done this
“wealth inequality is high, where the richest 10% hold 56% of the total wealth (as of early 2025 data), compared to the bottom 90% sharing the rest.”
Also, the Dutch are fascist as fuck. Not as in fascism = bad but as in fadcism = corporatism.
https://newint.org/migration/2025/can-dutch-fight-fascism-head
As far as explaining what the dominant form of culture means here is an article based off the movie corporation. Obviously this is a US perspective, but all my research indicates that corporations are dominating all of Europe as well.
https://knowledge.wharton.upenn.edu/article/a-critical-look-at-the-corporations-dominant-role-in-society/
I never said fascism is the only cause of inequality. It is the evolution of corporatism which I believe has evolved into a corportocracy. The revolving door between private and public and regulatory capture have created the reality that corporations are the ones crafting and getting the majority of all policy passed around the world. While in the US is extreme at almost 90% of all policy, in Europe it is slight better with 70-80% of all policy.
This is what dominant means.
There are different measures of wealth inequality, and they are going to give different results.
For income inequality the typical approach is to consider the distribution of income post-transfers by Gini coefficient. In this sense the Dutch economy has among the lowest inequalities in the world (Gini ~0.26-0.29 depending on the estimate and methodology), though still a bit worse than the most equal societies (Gini ~0.23-0.25). (By comparison, the US is around 0.40-0.42.)
Compared to what? What it should be? Other countries? Other times? For much of history, most people weren’t even allowed to own property aside from their personal belongings. Do I, personally, think inequality should be reduced? Yes. But let’s not deny that these societies are among the most egalitarian in history, “corporatism” or not, and the feudal and ancient civilizations were all invariably much worse.