I feel like thats a bit dishonest, saying it like that kind of implies that instability and violence in the region is only a result of western imperialism, and kind of ignored both non western imperialist influences on the area and the deep history of internal conflict in the region.
Imperialism by its essence is the overarching influence in the region, as the system of global hegemony. Other influences are subordinated and distorted that they conform to such hegemony.
The disparities between various regions, such as between Europe versus the Middle East, are directly a consequence of imperialism imposed by the former on the latter, not by either carrying an intrinsic superiority or deformity.
I’m not denying that, but just asking to be proportional. You see China in the first map? It was actually nowhere near being an imperium itself. Do you understand my point on proportionality? During a storm you don’t say apples fall because of gravity.
I feel like thats a bit dishonest, saying it like that kind of implies that instability and violence in the region is only a result of western imperialism, and kind of ignored both non western imperialist influences on the area and the deep history of internal conflict in the region.
Imperialism by its essence is the overarching influence in the region, as the system of global hegemony. Other influences are subordinated and distorted that they conform to such hegemony.
The disparities between various regions, such as between Europe versus the Middle East, are directly a consequence of imperialism imposed by the former on the latter, not by either carrying an intrinsic superiority or deformity.
Please could you point in the map the ‘non western imperialism’ that also influenced the middle east?
Consider imperialist influence being directly proportional to governance exploitation multiplied by governed time.
Also if you really want to go earlier in history of instability and violence…
So you’re saying china and Russia have had no imperialist influence on the middle east?
If you’re going to make that assertion, then I don’t think you’re arguing in good faith or will listen to reason.
I’m not denying that, but just asking to be proportional. You see China in the first map? It was actually nowhere near being an imperium itself. Do you understand my point on proportionality? During a storm you don’t say apples fall because of gravity.
???
I really have no idea what point you’re trying to make here?
So you’re saying china and Russia have had no imperialist influence on the middle east?
If you’re going to make that assertion, then I don’t think you’re arguing in good faith or will listen to reason.